NTS Test (NAT-I & NAT II)
Sample Test, Page - 1
NTS SAMPLE
PAPER
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Time : 2
Hours
Questions:100
Instructions: Please read the following instruction carefully before attempting the paper.
Instructions: Please read the following instruction carefully before attempting the paper.
- There are 100 MCQs in the test, each carrying equal marks. Each correct response gets 1 mark. Attempt all the questions.
- For every question four or five options (A, B, C, D & E) are given, you have to select only one correct option.
- Use ball point (black/blue) to shade the circle for correct option.
- Erasing, cutting or overwriting is not allowed. Once an answer has been given on answer sheet, the candidate will not be allowed to change it. Shading two or more circles for a question will get Zero marks for that question.
Part -1
Verbal Section (MCQs: 20)
Verbal Section (MCQs: 20)
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank shows that something has
been omitted. Choose correct word or pair of words from the options given
below.
1. Your ____________ remarks spoil the effect of your speech; try not to stray from your subject.
(A). Derogatory (B). Digressive
(C). Persistent (D). Enigmatic
2. The dispute became so____________ that we were afraid that the adversaries would come to blow.
(A). Ironic (B). Generalized
(C). Articulate (D). Acrimonious
3. Cancer cells are normal cells run riot, growing and multiplying out of ______________
(A). Spite (B). Danger
(C). Control (D). Range
4. A _________ glance pays ___________ attention to details.
(A). furtive…meticulous (B). cursory….little
(C). cryptic….close (D). keen….scanty
5. Even if you do not ____________ what I have to say, I will appreciate you listening to me with an open mind.
(A). Concur with (B). Anticipate
(C). Reject (D). Clarify
1. Your ____________ remarks spoil the effect of your speech; try not to stray from your subject.
(A). Derogatory (B). Digressive
(C). Persistent (D). Enigmatic
2. The dispute became so____________ that we were afraid that the adversaries would come to blow.
(A). Ironic (B). Generalized
(C). Articulate (D). Acrimonious
3. Cancer cells are normal cells run riot, growing and multiplying out of ______________
(A). Spite (B). Danger
(C). Control (D). Range
4. A _________ glance pays ___________ attention to details.
(A). furtive…meticulous (B). cursory….little
(C). cryptic….close (D). keen….scanty
5. Even if you do not ____________ what I have to say, I will appreciate you listening to me with an open mind.
(A). Concur with (B). Anticipate
(C). Reject (D). Clarify
Preparation for NTS Test – Guidelines
Page - 2
Analogy Questions:
The word “analogy” means conformity or correspondence or relationship between words in various aspects. In such question pair of words is given which shows certain type relation relationship, in the light of which you are asked to select a word from options having same relationship to the new given word. These are simple question but needs critical thinking to choose appropriate word according to the nature of given relationship. Don’t just pick the word which shows relationship in some extent but pick that word which having relationship according to the nature of relationship in given example
For Example:
MCQ: Book is to Page as Poem is to ___________
Options: (A). Poet (B). Poetry (C) Verse (D). Couplet
Solution: The correct option is “C. Verse”. Though other options Poet, Poetry, and Couplet have also a relationship to “Poem” but it is not to the nature of relationship of book to page. Page is a unit of book. A lot of pages combines to form a book. Similarly many verses combines to form a poem, So the correct option is C. Verse.
MCQ: Book is to Author as Poem is to ___________
Options: (A). Poet (B). Poetry (C) Verse (D). Singer
Solution: The correct option is “A. Poet”.
You will be given relationship of resemblance, of being opposite, size, effect, etc. Understand the nature of relationship before choosing the option so that you can choose correct option accordingly.
You will also be asked some question on antonyms and synonyms. Frankly speaking there is no logic or concept for antonyms or synonym except learning them from a grammar book. So learn synonyms and antonyms as much as possible from a Standard English grammar book.
Comprehension Questions:
Comprehension means the act of grasping the meaning of something or understand or interpreting something. In such question candidate is given a paragraph and question on that paragraph. These questions on paragraph are designed to test the comprehension power of candidate. Read the paragraph carefully to get the actually meaning of what is said in each line of paragraph. Answer the questions the in light of meaning and understanding you have derived from reading the paragraph. The lines of paragraph may hold some hidden ideas which you have to explore in order to choose correct option to question.
Example: See the “NTS Sample Paper” on this website.
The word “analogy” means conformity or correspondence or relationship between words in various aspects. In such question pair of words is given which shows certain type relation relationship, in the light of which you are asked to select a word from options having same relationship to the new given word. These are simple question but needs critical thinking to choose appropriate word according to the nature of given relationship. Don’t just pick the word which shows relationship in some extent but pick that word which having relationship according to the nature of relationship in given example
For Example:
MCQ: Book is to Page as Poem is to ___________
Options: (A). Poet (B). Poetry (C) Verse (D). Couplet
Solution: The correct option is “C. Verse”. Though other options Poet, Poetry, and Couplet have also a relationship to “Poem” but it is not to the nature of relationship of book to page. Page is a unit of book. A lot of pages combines to form a book. Similarly many verses combines to form a poem, So the correct option is C. Verse.
MCQ: Book is to Author as Poem is to ___________
Options: (A). Poet (B). Poetry (C) Verse (D). Singer
Solution: The correct option is “A. Poet”.
You will be given relationship of resemblance, of being opposite, size, effect, etc. Understand the nature of relationship before choosing the option so that you can choose correct option accordingly.
You will also be asked some question on antonyms and synonyms. Frankly speaking there is no logic or concept for antonyms or synonym except learning them from a grammar book. So learn synonyms and antonyms as much as possible from a Standard English grammar book.
Comprehension Questions:
Comprehension means the act of grasping the meaning of something or understand or interpreting something. In such question candidate is given a paragraph and question on that paragraph. These questions on paragraph are designed to test the comprehension power of candidate. Read the paragraph carefully to get the actually meaning of what is said in each line of paragraph. Answer the questions the in light of meaning and understanding you have derived from reading the paragraph. The lines of paragraph may hold some hidden ideas which you have to explore in order to choose correct option to question.
Example: See the “NTS Sample Paper” on this website.
PART-II
Analytical Reasoning Questions
Analytical questions are designed to test candidate’s analytical skills. Analytical Skills means the ability to analyze a given situation, scenario or statement. Candidate is given a scenario, statement or a situation in a form of a paragraph, tables or set of facts and he is asked on various aspects of it. Candidate may be asked solution to a problem or conclusion of a process or a tactic on given situation. Such questions demand a great deal of thinking and logical approach. In some of these questions candidate may also need the basic knowledge mathematics. Read the situation carefully and attentively....... (continued to next page) Preparation for NTS Test – Guidelines
NTS Test has been divided in various categories depending department/groups in which student wants to take admission.
- NAT-I is divided in NAT-IA (for Art/Humanities students), NAT-IE (for Pre-engineering students) and NAT-IM (for Pre-medical students).
- NAT-II is divided in NAT-IIA (Art/Social Sciences Group), NAT-IIB (Biological Group), NAT-IIM (Management Group), NAT-IIO (Oriental and Islamic Studies Group) and NAT-IIP (Physical Science Group).
Each of these tests consists of FOUR parts.
- Verbal Ability (20 MCQs)
- Analytical Reasoning (20 MCQs)
- Quantitative Reasoning (20 MCQs)
- Subject Knowledge (30 MCS in NAT-I and 40 MCQs in NAT-II paper)
First three parts of are same
for all NAT tests but the fourth part differs for different category of NAT.
|
NAT- I & II (All Categories/Group) Format
Time Allowed: 120 Minutes
|
|||
|
SAME FOR ALL GROUPS OF NAT
|
DIFFERENT EACH
|
||
|
A: Verbal
|
B: Analytical
|
C: Quantitative
|
D: Subject
|
|
1.Sentence Completion (5)
2. Analogy (3) 3. Antonym (4) 4. Comprehension (5) 5. Synonym (3) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Scenario Based (12)
2. Statement Based (08) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra (04) 3. Geometry (03) Total MCQs : 20 |
Note: This Section of test differs for each group of NAT
test i.e NAT-IA, NAT-IE,
NAT-IIB, or NAT-IIB |
We will discuss here about the
preparation for first three parts of NTS Test which are same for all
categories. Here are the Guidelines which will help you in maximizing your
score in test and qualifying test very easily.
PART-1
(A)
Verbal Ability
“Verbal” means ‘relating to
words’ and “ability” means ‘skill or intelligence to do something’. The MCQs in
Verbal Ability Part are designed in forms of words (English Language) to test
student’s mental ability and knowledge about the language. The aim of Verbal
Test is to analyze students’ intelligence, understanding towards toward English
Language and English Comprehension. Verbal Test consists of Sentence
Completion, Analogy and Comprehension questions.
Sentence Completion Questions:
In such type of questions, one or two blanks are given in a sentence, which has/have to be filled with correct option from given options A, B, C, D & C. Four or Five words or pairs of words are given as options below each question.
Candidate has to choose the option which completes the overall sense/meaning of sentence adequately. Two or three of given options may complete the sentence and make the sentence grammatically correct but candidate should go for the option which makes the sentence grammatically correct as well as complete the sense of sentence as a whole. Read the sentence carefully and select your option which best fits in sentence according to the background meaning and grammar of sentence. If there are two blanks, then focus on mutual relation and effect both words of pair according to the sense and grammar of sentence. The blanks should be filled in with following criteria
Sentence Completion Questions:
In such type of questions, one or two blanks are given in a sentence, which has/have to be filled with correct option from given options A, B, C, D & C. Four or Five words or pairs of words are given as options below each question.
Candidate has to choose the option which completes the overall sense/meaning of sentence adequately. Two or three of given options may complete the sentence and make the sentence grammatically correct but candidate should go for the option which makes the sentence grammatically correct as well as complete the sense of sentence as a whole. Read the sentence carefully and select your option which best fits in sentence according to the background meaning and grammar of sentence. If there are two blanks, then focus on mutual relation and effect both words of pair according to the sense and grammar of sentence. The blanks should be filled in with following criteria
- Correct Grammatical Structure of Sentence (Noun, Verb, Preposition etc or grammar rules)
- Selection of Correct Vocabulary
- Selection of Correct Filler according to the over all content or sense of sentence
For example:
MCQ:
My father keeps all his
___________ papers under lock and key.
Options: (A).
Useful (B). Confidential (C). Important (D).
Necessary
Solution: The
correct answer is “B.
Confidential”. See that all other options also fill the blank
with grammatical correction and also makes the sense of sentence up to some
extent. BUT the
option which
along with grammatical correction makes the overall sense of sentence perfect
is B, Confidential because “keeping something under lock” means that the thing
is confidential and other may not see or read it at any cost which is only
possible if kept under lock. While useful/important/necessary papers are kept
safe but may or may not be necessarily under lock.
(continued to next
page) Preparation for NTS Test – Guidelines
Preparation for NTS Test – Guidelines
Page - 3
Extract all the ideas of situation. If you confuse among
them, you may write main points or parts on rough sheet. Be focused on all
dimensions of situation and answer accordingly. The sharper minded you will be,
the more quickly and correctly will you solve.
Example:
Four employees Aslam, Shahid, Nasir and Waqas, each have to perform duties at Airport on four different days, Thursday to Sunday. Their duty schedule is that: Nasir has his duty day before Aslam, and, Waqas has his duty day after Shahid.
Q. 1. Which of the following can be possible order of duty of the four employees?
(A). Nasir, Waqas, Aslam, Shahid
(B). Waqas, Nasir, Aslam, Shahid
(C). Shahid, Nasir, Waqas, Aslam
(D). Aslam, Nasir, Waqas, Shahid
Q.2. If Nasir has his duty day on Saturday, who much have his duty day on Thursday?
(A). Either Aslam or Waqas
(B). Waqas
(C). Aslam
(D). Waqas
Answers:
Answer 1. C
Answer 2. D
Example:
Four employees Aslam, Shahid, Nasir and Waqas, each have to perform duties at Airport on four different days, Thursday to Sunday. Their duty schedule is that: Nasir has his duty day before Aslam, and, Waqas has his duty day after Shahid.
Q. 1. Which of the following can be possible order of duty of the four employees?
(A). Nasir, Waqas, Aslam, Shahid
(B). Waqas, Nasir, Aslam, Shahid
(C). Shahid, Nasir, Waqas, Aslam
(D). Aslam, Nasir, Waqas, Shahid
Q.2. If Nasir has his duty day on Saturday, who much have his duty day on Thursday?
(A). Either Aslam or Waqas
(B). Waqas
(C). Aslam
(D). Waqas
Answers:
Answer 1. C
Answer 2. D
PART- 3
Quantitative Reasoning
Quantitative reasoning consists of questions which normally
involve the basics of arithmetic (addition, subtraction, multiplication,
division, ratio and proportion, percentage), simple algebra and simple
geometry. These questions are though very simple but they involve some tricks
which make them seem difficult. Usually there is some missing data in question
which you need to solve that question. You have to first extract that
hidden/missing data from the given data of question. Similarly in question of
geometry you have to use brain to make an extra sketch for the given diagram or
question which may help you solve the question easily. Students find these questions
difficult because they directly apply the arithmetic rules on given data and
don’t try to analyze the given data if some extra helpful data may also be
extracted. You should learn the simple concepts of arithmetic, algebra
and geometry as well as the art of exploring the tricks of such questions. To
solve such question you should have command on the simple concepts and formulas
of mathematics, i.e addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, ratio and
proportion, percentage, formulae for areas of circle, triangle, quadrilateral
etc, simple formulae and rules for algebra.
Examples:
MCQ. A book is on sale Rs. 120 after a discount of 20%. Find the original price of book?
Options: (A). 100 (B). 140 (C). 150 (B). 180
Solution: The correct response is C. 150. It is an easy question involving simple and easy trick. That is that 20% means that if original price of book is Rs. 100, the discounted rate (after discount of 20%) of book will be Rs. 80. This data is hidden and is to be extracted in order to solve this question. Apply this extracted data on Rs. 120 (discounted rate for which original price is to be determined). i.e 100/80 x 120 = 150 Answer.
MCQ. There is 2 feet wide walk-tract around a garden. The length of this walk-tract is 20 feet and width of this walk-tract is 10 feet. Find the area of the garden.
Options: (A). 100 sq. ft (B). 96 sq. ft (C). 144 sq. ft (B). 200 sq. ft
Solution: The correction option is 96 square feet. Though the width and length of garden is not given but we have to extract this data from the given data. We know that walk-tract is 2 feet wide, it means that length of garden will be 4 feet (deducting 2 feet on both sides) from the length of walk-tract. Similarly the width of garden will be 4 feet (deducting 2 feet on both sides) from the width of walk-tract. So length of garden will be (20-4=16) 16 and width of garden will be (10-4=6) 6. So area of garden will be 6 x 16 = 96
Examples:
MCQ. A book is on sale Rs. 120 after a discount of 20%. Find the original price of book?
Options: (A). 100 (B). 140 (C). 150 (B). 180
Solution: The correct response is C. 150. It is an easy question involving simple and easy trick. That is that 20% means that if original price of book is Rs. 100, the discounted rate (after discount of 20%) of book will be Rs. 80. This data is hidden and is to be extracted in order to solve this question. Apply this extracted data on Rs. 120 (discounted rate for which original price is to be determined). i.e 100/80 x 120 = 150 Answer.
MCQ. There is 2 feet wide walk-tract around a garden. The length of this walk-tract is 20 feet and width of this walk-tract is 10 feet. Find the area of the garden.
Options: (A). 100 sq. ft (B). 96 sq. ft (C). 144 sq. ft (B). 200 sq. ft
Solution: The correction option is 96 square feet. Though the width and length of garden is not given but we have to extract this data from the given data. We know that walk-tract is 2 feet wide, it means that length of garden will be 4 feet (deducting 2 feet on both sides) from the length of walk-tract. Similarly the width of garden will be 4 feet (deducting 2 feet on both sides) from the width of walk-tract. So length of garden will be (20-4=16) 16 and width of garden will be (10-4=6) 6. So area of garden will be 6 x 16 = 96
NTS Test (NAT-I & NAT II)
Sample Test, Page - 2
NTS SAMPLE
PAPER
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Each of the following analogy question presents a
related pair of words linked by a colon. Select the pair of words whose
relationship is most like the relationship expressed in original pair.
6. STARE : GLANCE
(A). gulp : sip (B). scorn : admire
(C). hunt : stalk (D). participate : observe
7. FIRE : ASHES
(A). water : waves (B). event : memories
(C). regret : melancholy (D). wood : splinters
8. SIGN : ZODAIC
(A). poster : billboard (B). letter : alphabet
(C). prediction : prophecy (D). signal : beacon
Select a word or phrase from the options which is the most nearly opposite in meaning to the given capitalized word.
9. COMPLY
(A). Simplify (B). Strive
(C). Rebel (D). Unite
10. AUTONOMY
(A). Dependence (B). Animation
(C). Renown (D). Altruism
11. TAPER
(A). emphasize (B). broaden
(C). split (D). restore
12. HALLOW
(A). keep silence (B). prove incorrect
(C). desecrate (D). accuse openly
Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied.
It is wonderful to observe how a baby grows. In its infancy, it responds only to pain and hunger. By the second month it can raise its head to look at things around it. It also begins to smile at people. By the time the baby is four months old, it begins to catch at things. By the time the baby is five months old, it can grasp objects and can even feed itself. At about seven months it can crawl. In late infancy its interests increase. It begins to like games, songs and even books.
6. STARE : GLANCE
(A). gulp : sip (B). scorn : admire
(C). hunt : stalk (D). participate : observe
7. FIRE : ASHES
(A). water : waves (B). event : memories
(C). regret : melancholy (D). wood : splinters
8. SIGN : ZODAIC
(A). poster : billboard (B). letter : alphabet
(C). prediction : prophecy (D). signal : beacon
Select a word or phrase from the options which is the most nearly opposite in meaning to the given capitalized word.
9. COMPLY
(A). Simplify (B). Strive
(C). Rebel (D). Unite
10. AUTONOMY
(A). Dependence (B). Animation
(C). Renown (D). Altruism
11. TAPER
(A). emphasize (B). broaden
(C). split (D). restore
12. HALLOW
(A). keep silence (B). prove incorrect
(C). desecrate (D). accuse openly
Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied.
It is wonderful to observe how a baby grows. In its infancy, it responds only to pain and hunger. By the second month it can raise its head to look at things around it. It also begins to smile at people. By the time the baby is four months old, it begins to catch at things. By the time the baby is five months old, it can grasp objects and can even feed itself. At about seven months it can crawl. In late infancy its interests increase. It begins to like games, songs and even books.
NTS (New Testing System), Pakistan
Introduction:
NTS is a newly introduced system which conducts “Test” for admission into various government colleges and universities in Pakistan. The tests conducted by NTS for admission into colleges and universities called “NAT” (National Aptitude Test) and “GAT”.
- Test for students who have completed 12 years of their education (Intermediate or equivalent) is called NAT-I
- Test for students who have completed 14 years of their education (Graduation or equivalent) is called NAT-II
- Tests for students who have completed 16 years of their education (MA, MSc, BSc Honour etc) are called GAT-General or GAT-Subject.
Besides admission tests, the NTS also conducts tests for HEC and foreign Scholarship.
NTS (NAT-I & NAT-II) Test Format
The test is comprised of MCQs
only. There are 90 MCQs in NAT-I paper and time duration of NAT-I paper is 2
hours (120 minutes). There are 100 MCQs in NAT-II paper and time duration of
NAT-II is 2 hours (120 minutes).
The test is to be answered on computer readable answer sheet (OMR Sheet) by shading the circle for correct option for each MCQ. There is no NEGATIVE MARKING in test.
The test is to be answered on computer readable answer sheet (OMR Sheet) by shading the circle for correct option for each MCQ. There is no NEGATIVE MARKING in test.
Detail Description of Test – Course outlines for Test
NTS Test is further divided in
various categories depending department/groups in which student want to take
admission.
- NAT-I is further divided in NAT-IA (for Art/Humanities students), NAT-IE (for Pre-engineering students) and NAT-IM (for Pre-medical students).
- NAT-II is further divided in NAT-IIA (Art/Social Sciences Group), NAT-IIB (Biological Group), NAT-IIM (Management Group), NAT-IIO (Oriental and Islamic Studies Group) and NAT-IIP (Physical Science Group).
Each of these tests consists of
FOUR parts.
- Verbal Reasoning (20 MCQs)
- Analytical Reasoning (20 MCQs)
- Quantitative Reasoning (20 MCQs)
- Subject Knowledge (30 MCS in NAT-I and 40 MCQs in NAT-II paper)
First three parts of are same
for all NAT tests but the fourth part differs for different category of NAT.
See details in below table.
|
NAT- IA (Arts/Humanities Group)
MCQs : 90 Time Allowed : 120
Minutes
|
|||
|
A: Verbal
|
B: Analytical
|
C: Quantitative
|
D: Subject
|
|
1.Sentence Completion.5
2. Analogy (3) 3. Antonym (4) 4. Comprehension (5) 5. Synonym (3) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Scenario Based (12)
2. Statement Based (08) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra (04) 3. Geometry (03) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Islamiyat
(10)
2. Pakistan Studies (10) 3. General Knowledge (5) 4. Current Affairs (05) Total MCQs : 30 |
|
NAT- IE (Pre-engineering/Computer Scince)
MCQs : 90 Time Allowed : 120
Minutes
|
|||
|
A: Verbal
|
B: Analytical
|
C: Quantitative
|
D: Subject
|
|
1.Sentence Completion.5
2. Analogy (3) 3. Antonym (4) 4. Comprehension (5) 5. Synonym (3) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Scenario Based (12)
2. Statement Based (08) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra (04) 3. Geometry (03) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Physics (10)
2. Chemistry/Computer Science (10) 3. Mathematics (10) Total MCQs : 30 |
|
NAT- IM (Pre-Medical Group)
MCQs : 90 Time Allowed : 120
Minutes
|
|||
|
A: Verbal
|
B: Analytical
|
C: Quantitative
|
D: Subject
|
|
1.Sentence Completion.5
2. Analogy (3) 3. Antonym (4) 4. Comprehension (5) 5. Synonym (3) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Scenario Based (12)
2. Statement Based (08) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra (04) 3. Geometry (03) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Physics
(10)
2. Chemistry (10) 3. Biology (10) Total MCQs : 30 |
|
NAT- IIA (Arts/Social Sciences)
MCQs : 90 Time Allowed : 120
Minutes
|
|||
|
A: Verbal
|
B: Analytical
|
C: Quantitative
|
D: Subject
|
|
1.Sentence Completion.5
2. Analogy (3) 3. Antonym (4) 4. Comprehension (5) 5. Synonym (3) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Scenario Based (12)
2. Statement Based (08) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra (04) 3. Geometry (03) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Islamiyat
(10)
2. Pakistan Studies (10) 3. General Knowledge 10 4. Current Affairs (10) Total MCQs : 40 |
|
NAT- IIO (Oriental/Islamic Studies)
MCQs : 90 Time Allowed : 120
Minutes
|
|||
|
A: Verbal
|
B: Analytical
|
C: Quantitative
|
D: Subject
|
|
1.Sentence Completion.5
2. Analogy (3) 3. Antonym (4) 4. Comprehension (5) 5. Synonym (3) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Scenario Based (12)
2. Statement Based (08) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra (04) 3. Geometry (03) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Islamic History (13)
2. Comparison of Religions (13) 3. Sources of Islamic Religion/Quran and & Hadith (14) Total MCQs : 40 |
|
NAT- IIM (Management Sciences)
MCQs : 90 Time Allowed : 120
Minutes
|
|||
|
A: Verbal
|
B: Analytical
|
C: Quantitative
|
D: Subject
|
|
1.Sentence Completion.5
2. Analogy (3) 3. Antonym (4) 4. Comprehension (5) 5. Synonym (3) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Scenario Based (12)
2. Statement Based (08) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra (04) 3. Geometry (03) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Islamiyat
(05)
2. Pakistan Studies (05) 3. General Business Envr. (10) 4.Pakistan Economy (B) (05) 5. Management (Basic)10 6. Banking (General) 05 |
|
NAT- IIP (Physical Science)
MCQs : 90 Time Allowed : 120
Minutes
|
|||
|
A: Verbal
|
B: Analytical
|
C: Quantitative
|
D: Subject
|
|
1.Sentence Completion.5
2. Analogy (3) 3. Antonym (4) 4. Comprehension (5) 5. Synonym (3) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Scenario Based (12)
2. Statement Based (08) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra (04) 3. Geometry (03) Total MCQs : 20 |
1.Mechanics
(10)
2. Electricity and Magentis (05) 3. Waves & Oscillation(5) 4. Modern Physics (10) 5.Heat/Thermodynamic 5 Total MCQs : 40 |
|
NAT- IIB (Biological Sciences)
MCQs : 90 Time Allowed : 120
Minutes
|
|||
|
A: Verbal
|
B: Analytical
|
C: Quantitative
|
D: Subject
|
|
1.Sentence Completion.5
2. Analogy (3) 3. Antonym (4) 4. Comprehension (5) 5. Synonym (3) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Scenario Based (12)
2. Statement Based (08) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra (04) 3. Geometry (03) Total MCQs : 20 |
1. Botany
(20)
2. Zoology (20) Total MCQs : 40 |
NTS Test (NAT-I & NAT II)
Sample Test, Page - 6
NTS SAMPLE
PAPER
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
NTS Test (NAT-I & NAT II) Sample Test, Page - 7
NTS Test (NAT-I & NAT II)
Sample Test, Page - 7
NTS SAMPLE
PAPER
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
42. If Aslam studies Chemistry on Saturday, which subject
must he have read on Thursday?
(A). English (B). Biology
(C). Physics (D). Either English or Physics
43. Each of the following is possible, EXCEPT
(A). Chemistry on Thursday (B). Physics on Sunday
(C). Physics on Thursday (D). Biology on Saturday
(Questions 44 – 46)
(M, N, O and P are all different individuals)
(A). English (B). Biology
(C). Physics (D). Either English or Physics
43. Each of the following is possible, EXCEPT
(A). Chemistry on Thursday (B). Physics on Sunday
(C). Physics on Thursday (D). Biology on Saturday
(Questions 44 – 46)
(M, N, O and P are all different individuals)
- M is the daughter of N.
- N is the son of O
- O is the father of P.
44.Which of the following statements is true?
(A). O is the uncle of M.
(B). P and N are brothers
(C). M is the daughter of P.
(D). If B is the daughter of N, then M and B are sisters.
45.Which of the following statements is contradictory to the above premises?
(A). P is the father of M.
(B). O has three children.
(C). M has one brother.
(D). M is the granddaughter of O.
46.If B is the son of N and B has one brother, D, then
(A). O is the uncle of M.
(B). P and N are brothers
(C). M is the daughter of P.
(D). If B is the daughter of N, then M and B are sisters.
45.Which of the following statements is contradictory to the above premises?
(A). P is the father of M.
(B). O has three children.
(C). M has one brother.
(D). M is the granddaughter of O.
46.If B is the son of N and B has one brother, D, then
- M is the sister of D.
- D and N are brothers.
- O is the grandfather of D.
(A). I only
(B). II only
(C). I and II only
(D). I and III only
(B). II only
(C). I and II only
(D). I and III only
NTS Test (NAT-I & NAT II)
Sample Test, Page - 8
NTS SAMPLE
PAPER
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
(Questions 47 – 51)
Two or more essences of five substances (L, M, N, O, and P) are used in making perfumes by a manufacturer. He has to combine substances according to the following rules for CORRECT COMBINATION.
Two or more essences of five substances (L, M, N, O, and P) are used in making perfumes by a manufacturer. He has to combine substances according to the following rules for CORRECT COMBINATION.
- A perfume containing L, should also contain the substance N, and the quantity of N should be twice as that of L.
- A perfume containing M, must also have O as one of its components and they should be in equal proportion.
- A single perfume should never contain N as well as O.
- O and P should not be used together.
- A perfume containing the substance P should contain P in such a proportion that the total amount of P present should be greater than the total amount of the other substance or substances used.
47.Which of the following is correct
combination for a perfume?
(A). One part L, one part P (B). Two parts M, two parts L
(C). Five parts P, five parts M (D). Four parts O, four parts M
48.Which of the following combinations will be come correct by adding amount of substance N?
(A). One part L, one part N, five parts P
(B). Two parts M, two parts N, two parts P
(C). One part M, one part N, one part P
(D). Two parts M, one part N, four parts P
49.Which of the following should be added to combination of “two parts N and one part” so that it becomes correct.
(A). One part L (B). Two parts N
(C). One part O (D). Two parts P
50.Which of the following combination cannot be used together in a Correct way to make perfume containing two or more substances?
(A). L and M (B). L and N
(C). L and P (D). M and O
51.Which of the following combination can be made CORRECT by eliminating some or all of substances?
(A). One part L, one part M, one part N, four parts P
(B). One part L, two parts N, one part O, four parts P
(C). One part L, one part M, one part O, one part P
(D). Two parts L, two parts N, one part O, two parts P
52.“Nasir must be a student, he has a book in his hand”. This conclusion is valid only if it is true that:
(A). Students often have books in their hands.
(B). All the students have books in their hands.
(C). Students are required to have books in their hands.
(D). Only students have books in their hands.
(A). One part L, one part P (B). Two parts M, two parts L
(C). Five parts P, five parts M (D). Four parts O, four parts M
48.Which of the following combinations will be come correct by adding amount of substance N?
(A). One part L, one part N, five parts P
(B). Two parts M, two parts N, two parts P
(C). One part M, one part N, one part P
(D). Two parts M, one part N, four parts P
49.Which of the following should be added to combination of “two parts N and one part” so that it becomes correct.
(A). One part L (B). Two parts N
(C). One part O (D). Two parts P
50.Which of the following combination cannot be used together in a Correct way to make perfume containing two or more substances?
(A). L and M (B). L and N
(C). L and P (D). M and O
51.Which of the following combination can be made CORRECT by eliminating some or all of substances?
(A). One part L, one part M, one part N, four parts P
(B). One part L, two parts N, one part O, four parts P
(C). One part L, one part M, one part O, one part P
(D). Two parts L, two parts N, one part O, two parts P
52.“Nasir must be a student, he has a book in his hand”. This conclusion is valid only if it is true that:
(A). Students often have books in their hands.
(B). All the students have books in their hands.
(C). Students are required to have books in their hands.
(D). Only students have books in their hands.
NTS Test (NAT-I & NAT II)
Sample Test, Page - 9
NTS SAMPLE
PAPER
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
53.Exactly 7 persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U & V -
participate in and finish all of a series of races. There are no ties for any
position at the finish of the races. The following statements about the races
are always true :
- V finishes somewhere ahead of P
- P finishes somewhere ahead of Q
- Either R finishes first and T finishes last, or S finishes first and U or Q finishes last
If in a race S finishes sixth and Q finishes fifth, which of the following can be true?
(A). V finishes first or fourth (B). R finishes second or third
(C). P finishes second or fifth (D). U finishes third or fourth*
54.“If Hameed is a member of writers’ group in college, he is member of library group in college”. This statement can be logically deduced from which of following statements
(A). All the members of library group are member of writers’ group
(B). Everyone who is member of writers’ group is also member of library group.
(C). Hameed is either member of writers’ group or library group
(D). Some member of library group are members of writers’ group
(Questions 55 – 60)
Five educational films A, B, C, D, & E are to be shown to a group of students. The films are to be shown in a particular order, which conforms to the following conditions:
- A must be shown earlier than C.
- B must be shown earlier than D.
- E should be the fifth film shown.
55.Which of the following is an acceptable order for showing
the educational films ?
(A). A, C, B, D, E (B). A, C, D, E, B
(C). B, D, C, A, E (D). B, D, C, A, E
56.In case C is shown earlier than E, which among the following will hold true?
(A). A is the first film shown. (B). B is the second film shown.
(C). C is the third film shown. (D). D is the fifth film shown.
57.In case D is to be shown earlier than A, then for which among the following is there exactly one position from first through fifth in which it can be scheduled to be shown ?
(A). A (B). B
(C). C* (D). D
(A). A, C, B, D, E (B). A, C, D, E, B
(C). B, D, C, A, E (D). B, D, C, A, E
56.In case C is shown earlier than E, which among the following will hold true?
(A). A is the first film shown. (B). B is the second film shown.
(C). C is the third film shown. (D). D is the fifth film shown.
57.In case D is to be shown earlier than A, then for which among the following is there exactly one position from first through fifth in which it can be scheduled to be shown ?
(A). A (B). B
(C). C* (D). D
NTS Test (NAT-I & NAT II)
Sample Test, Page - 10
NTS SAMPLE
PAPER
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
58.Which of the following is a
pair of films that CANNOT both be shown earlier than E ?
(A). A and B (B). A and D
(C). B and C (D). C and D
59.In case D and E are shown as far apart from each other as possible, which among the following would be true ?
(A). A is shown earlier than B. (B). B is shown earlier than C.
(C). C is shown earlier than E. (D). E is shown earlier than B.*
60. In case B, D and E are to be shown one after the other in the given order, the two positions from first to fifth in which A could possibly be shown are
(A). first and second. (B). first and fourth.
(C). second and third. (D). third and fifth.
(A). A and B (B). A and D
(C). B and C (D). C and D
59.In case D and E are shown as far apart from each other as possible, which among the following would be true ?
(A). A is shown earlier than B. (B). B is shown earlier than C.
(C). C is shown earlier than E. (D). E is shown earlier than B.*
60. In case B, D and E are to be shown one after the other in the given order, the two positions from first to fifth in which A could possibly be shown are
(A). first and second. (B). first and fourth.
(C). second and third. (D). third and fifth.
Part -4
Subject Knowledge
(MCQs: 40 for NAT-II and 30 for NAT-I)
Subject Knowledge
(MCQs: 40 for NAT-II and 30 for NAT-I)
Note:
This part has different format for each group i.e NAT-IA, NAT-IE, NAT-IM, NAT-IIA, NAT-IIO, NAT-IIM, NAT-IIP, NAT-IIB. Some of them have general knowledge and Islamiyat questions. Some have science subject. So better study about the format of each of these groups for this part for better understanding.
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